Showing a binary operation is injective

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that a binary operation defined as ##a*b=a^3+b^4## is injective, where the operation maps pairs of natural numbers to natural numbers. Participants are exploring the injectivity of this operation and the challenges involved in proving it.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of injectivity and the methods to prove it, including the contrapositive approach. There is an exploration of specific cases where either ##a \neq c## or ##b \neq d##, and the implications of these assumptions on the operation's output.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the reasoning process, while others have raised concerns about the completeness of the original poster's approach. There is a recognition that trivial cases have been considered, and suggestions have been made to explore alternative operations or examples that might clarify the injectivity question.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the operation may not be injective due to specific pairs of inputs yielding the same output, and there is mention of the potential for infinitely many such pairs. The discussion also touches on the implications of using different powers in the operation and the role of prime factorization in establishing injectivity.

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Homework Statement



The objective was to think of a binary operation ##*:\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}## that is injective. A classmate came up with the following operation, but had trouble showing it was injective:

##a*b=a^3+b^4##.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



Here's my thought process. I denote ##a*b## and ##c*d## by ##f(a,b)## and ##f(c,d)##, respectively. The usual procedure to show a function is injective is by using the definition:

A function ##f## is injective if ##f(a,b)=f(c,d)~\Rightarrow~(a,b)=(c,d)##. Alternatively, ##f## is injective if ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)~\Rightarrow~f(a,b)\not=f(c,d)##.

I figure the second (contrapositive) statement would be easier to prove. I assume ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)##; that is, I assume ##a\not=c## OR ##b\not=d##.

Suppose ##a\not=c,b=d##.
##\begin{align*}
a&\not=c\\
a^3&\not=c^3\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+b^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Suppose ##a=c,b\not=d##.
##\begin{align*}
b&\not=d\\
b^4&\not=d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=a^3+d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Now, I'm under the impression that this is all I have to show in order to conclude that ##*## is injective. Am I right in thinking this way?
 
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SithsNGiggles said:

Homework Statement



The objective was to think of a binary operation ##*:\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}## that is injective. A classmate came up with the following operation, but had trouble showing it was injective:

##a*b=a^3+b^4##.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



Here's my thought process. I denote ##a*b## and ##c*d## by ##f(a,b)## and ##f(c,d)##, respectively. The usual procedure to show a function is injective is by using the definition:

A function ##f## is injective if ##f(a,b)=f(c,d)~\Rightarrow~(a,b)=(c,d)##. Alternatively, ##f## is injective if ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)~\Rightarrow~f(a,b)\not=f(c,d)##.

I figure the second (contrapositive) statement would be easier to prove. I assume ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)##; that is, I assume ##a\not=c## OR ##b\not=d##.

Suppose ##a\not=c,b=d##.
##\begin{align*}
a&\not=c\\
a^3&\not=c^3\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+b^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Suppose ##a=c,b\not=d##.
##\begin{align*}
b&\not=d\\
b^4&\not=d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=a^3+d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Now, I'm under the impression that this is all I have to show in order to conclude that ##*## is injective. Am I right in thinking this way?

No, you have to also show a≠c and b≠d. That's the hard case, and I'm not sure how you would show it, if it's even true. You could pick a much easier example to try to show. Try to think of one using unique prime factorization.
 
Last edited:
Hmm, unfortunately I'm not familiar with that technique. So what you're saying is, my reasoning stands, but it does not (and would be hard to) prove anything?

Thanks for the reply.
 
SithsNGiggles said:
Hmm, unfortunately I'm not familiar with that technique. So what you're saying is, my reasoning stands, but it does not (and would be hard to) prove anything?

Thanks for the reply.

What you have is correct, but you are only doing completely trivial cases. I'm suggesting you try thinking about things like a*b=(n^a)(m^b). Can you think of some choices for m and n that would make it easy to prove '*' is an injection?
 
To prove that f(x,y) is injective, you have to prove that "if f(a,b)= f(c,d) then a= c and b= d".

Here, f(x,y)= x3+ y4.

if f(a,b)= f(c,d) means that a3+ b4= c3+ d4
That leads to a3- c3= d4- b4
(a- c)(a2+ ac+ c2= (d- b)(d3+ bd2+ b2d+ b3).
 
@HallsofIvy, how do I use that to show a = c and b = d? I see if they are equal, then I get the identity 0 = 0, but I don't think that proves anything. Could it be that ##(a-c)(a^2+ac+c^2)\not=(d-b)(d^3+bd^2+b^2d+b^3)## if ##a\not=c## and ##b\not=d##?

Thanks
 
Dick said:
What you have is correct, but you are only doing completely trivial cases. I'm suggesting you try thinking about things like a*b=(n^a)(m^b). Can you think of some choices for m and n that would make it easy to prove '*' is an injection?

##n=1## and ##m>1## come to mind. Beyond that, I'm not sure. I'll put some more thought into it.
 
SithsNGiggles said:
##n=1## and ##m>1## come to mind. Beyond that, I'm not sure. I'll put some more thought into it.

n=1 wouldn't be injective, would it? f(1,1)=f(2,1)=f(3,1)=...=m. Yes, think about it a little more.
 
SithsNGiggles said:

Homework Statement



The objective was to think of a binary operation ##*:\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}## that is injective. A classmate came up with the following operation, but had trouble showing it was injective:

##a*b=a^3+b^4##.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



Here's my thought process. I denote ##a*b## and ##c*d## by ##f(a,b)## and ##f(c,d)##, respectively. The usual procedure to show a function is injective is by using the definition:

A function ##f## is injective if ##f(a,b)=f(c,d)~\Rightarrow~(a,b)=(c,d)##. Alternatively, ##f## is injective if ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)~\Rightarrow~f(a,b)\not=f(c,d)##.

I figure the second (contrapositive) statement would be easier to prove. I assume ##(a,b)\not=(c,d)##; that is, I assume ##a\not=c## OR ##b\not=d##.

Suppose ##a\not=c,b=d##.
##\begin{align*}
a&\not=c\\
a^3&\not=c^3\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+b^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Suppose ##a=c,b\not=d##.
##\begin{align*}
b&\not=d\\
b^4&\not=d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=a^3+d^4\\
a^3+b^4&\not=c^3+d^4\\
a*b&\not=c*d\end{align*}##

Now, I'm under the impression that this is all I have to show in order to conclude that ##*## is injective. Am I right in thinking this way?

One way of seeing your relation is not injective in your domain-codomain is that you can find

x,y , so that ##x^3=y^4 ## . Say ##x=2^4 ,y=2^3 ## . Then take (x,y)=(##2^4,1 ##)

and (x',y')= ##(1,2^3)## we then get , for (x,y) , ## x^3 + y^4=2^{12}+1 ## ;

for (x',y') , we get ##(1+2^{12}) ##. You can see that there are infinitely-many

values where your function is not 1-1.
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Bacle2 said:
One way of seeing your relation is not injective in your domain-codomain is that you can find

x,y , so that ##x^3=y^4 ## . Say ##x=2^4 ,y=2^3 ## . Then take (x,y)=(##2^4,1 ##)

and (x',y')= ##(1,2^3)## we then get , for (x,y) , ## x^3 + y^4=2^{12}+1 ## ;

for (x',y') , we get ##(1+2^{12}) ##. You can see that there are infinitely-many

values where your function is not 1-1.

Hey, that's a pretty neat observation! It got me wondering: perhaps if the powers of a and b were odd, then the operation might be injective? I'll see if that gets me anywhere.

Thanks again to everyone else as well for the replies.
 
  • #11
SithsNGiggles said:
Hey, that's a pretty neat observation! It got me wondering: perhaps if the powers of a and b were odd, then the operation might be injective? I'll see if that gets me anywhere.

Thanks again to everyone else as well for the replies.

Hint. Think prime numbers in f(n,m)=a^n*b^m.
 
  • #12
Dick said:
Hint. Think prime numbers in f(n,m)=a^n*b^m.

Thanks, I noticed my mistake a few moments ago.

For this particular operation (a*b = a^3 + b^4), would it suffice to say something along the lines of:

Noting that, ##\forall~n\in\mathbb{N}\backslash\{1\},~(n^3)^4=(n^4)^3=n^{12}##, we can choose ##a=n^4,b=1,c=1,d=n^3## such that ##a*b=c*d##. It is thus apparent that ##*## fails to be injective for an infinite number of pairs ##(a,b)##.
(as per Bacle2's observation)

If there's anything wrong with the syntax, please let me know. Thanks
 
  • #13
SithsNGiggles said:
Hey, that's a pretty neat observation! It got me wondering: perhaps if the powers of a and b were odd, then the operation might be injective? I'll see if that gets me anywhere.

Thanks again to everyone else as well for the replies.

Well, no, the problem is that, if the powers are both integers, they will have an LCM
(least common multiple) so that , given a^n and b^m :

(b^m)^n +(a^n)^m =(b^n)^m+ (a^m)^n .

Unless you want to spend a lot of time with this approach --nothing wrong with it; just

pretty time-consuming -- Dick's idea is your best bet. It is an interesting problem to try

to figure out necessary --let alone sufficient -- conditions for a map from R^n into R^m

(m>1 ) to be onto. Please let me know if you find them!

If you get are interested, look up Gelfond-Schneider:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gelfond–Schneider_theorem
 
Last edited:

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