Sign problem in laplace transform

Mechdude
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Homework Statement


\int_{\pi/2}^{\infty}cos(t)e^{-st}dt

Homework Equations

\int vdu=uv-\int udv
v=cos(t) , dv=-sin(t)dt, du=e^{-st} , u=\frac{-e^{-st}} {s}

The Attempt at a Solution


\int_{\pi/2}^{\infty}cos(t)e^{-st}dt = \frac{-e^{-st}}{s}cos(t) -\int (-)\frac{-e^{-st}}{s}(-)sin(t)dt
the right side becomes:
\frac{-e^{-st}}{s}cos(t) - \frac{1}{s} \int e^{-st}sin(t)dt
for the second integral on the right:v=sin(t) , dv=cos(t)dt and du=e^{-st} , u=\frac{-e^{-st}} {s}
\int e^{-st}sin(t)dt =- \frac{1}{s}e^{-st}sin(t)dt - \int \frac{-e^{-st}}{s}cos(t)
now \int_{\pi/2}^{\infty}cos(t)e^{-st}dt = \frac{-e^{-st}}{s}cos(t) - \frac {1}{s} \left[ - \frac{1}{s}e^{-st}sin(t) + \int \frac{e^{-st}}{s}cos(t)dt \right]
thus
\frac{-e^{-st}}{s}cos(t) + \frac {1}{s^2}e^{-st}sin(t) - \frac {1}{s^2} \int e^{-st}cos(t)dt
simplifying
\int_{\pi/2}^{\infty}cos(t)e^{-st}dt \frac {s^2 +1} {s^2}= \frac {1}{s^2}e^{-st}sin(t) - \frac{e^{-st}}{s}cos(t)
going on :
\int_{\pi/2}^{\infty}cos(t)e^{-st}dt = \frac {s^2}{s^2 +1} \left[ \frac {1}{s^2}e^{-st}sin(t) - \frac{e^{-st}}{s}cos(t) \right]
the right side is:
= \frac {1}{s^2 +1}e^{-st}sin(t) + \frac{e^{-st}}{s^2+1}scos(t)
now when i evaluate the limits:
=(0-0) - ( \frac{e^{-s\pi/2}}{s^2+1} - 0 )
=- \frac{e^{-s\pi/2}}{s^2+1}
im sure this is wrong because of the sign (its supposed to be positive now where did i drop the sign? can u help? this was the function whose transform i was looking for
<br /> f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}0,&amp;\mbox{ if }0\leq x\leq \pi/2 \\<br /> cos(t), &amp; \mbox{ if } x&gt;\pi/2 \end{array}\right.<br />
 
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I get the same thing you got. Why would you think the answer should be positive? cos(t) is negative for pi/2<t<3pi/2. If you were trying to transform that step function f(x), where did the cos(t) come from?
 
Dick said:
, where did the cos(t) come from?

well typo on my part , let me edit it,
 
Here's the culprit :
L \left\{ U_{a}(t) f(t-a) \right\} = e^{-as} F(s)
which implies my result might be wrong
 
Mechdude said:
Here's the culprit :
L \left\{ U_{a}(t) f(t-a) \right\} = e^{-as} F(s)
which implies my result might be wrong

That formula would be helpful for integrating cos(t-pi/2)*exp(-ts) from pi/2 to infinity. But that's not the same as your problem.
 
So the answers for them would be different?
 
So the answers for them would be different? As an aside how would you determine L(t^2u(t-1)) with the hint to write t^2u(t-1) in the form f(t-a)u(t-a)
 
Mechdude said:
So the answers for them would be different? As an aside how would you determine L(t^2u(t-1)) with the hint to write t^2u(t-1) in the form f(t-a)u(t-a)

Sure the answers to cos(t)e^(-st) and cos(t-pi/2)*e^(-st) integrated from pi/2 to infinity are different. If you want t^2 to be f(t-1) then I guess f(t) would have to be (t+1)^2, right?
 
Thats sensible thanks,
 
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