yungman
- 5,741
- 294
Problem to solve: x^{2}y''+xy'+(\lambda^{2}x^{2}-\frac{1}{4})=0 subject to y(0)=finite,y(\pi)=0
Let t=\lambda x which give t^{2}\frac{d^{2}y}{dt^{2}}+t\frac{dy}{dt}+(t^{2}-\frac{1}{2})y=0
With that first linear independent solution is J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] and second independent solution is J_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
Since these two are linear independent solution, I should be able to write the general solution of y:
y=C_{1}J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] + C_{2}J_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
But the book claimed the solution of y:y=C_{1}J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] + C_{2}Y_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
Question is why do I have to use Y in the second solution instead of both J to solve the boundary value problem? I always learn that if you get the two independent solution, that would be the answers!
Let t=\lambda x which give t^{2}\frac{d^{2}y}{dt^{2}}+t\frac{dy}{dt}+(t^{2}-\frac{1}{2})y=0
With that first linear independent solution is J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] and second independent solution is J_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
Since these two are linear independent solution, I should be able to write the general solution of y:
y=C_{1}J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] + C_{2}J_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
But the book claimed the solution of y:y=C_{1}J_{\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)] + C_{2}Y_{-\frac{1}{2}}[\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi\lambda x}}sin(\lambda x)]
Question is why do I have to use Y in the second solution instead of both J to solve the boundary value problem? I always learn that if you get the two independent solution, that would be the answers!
Last edited: