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Through Euler's law this does give a solution tantamount to cos(kr-[tex]\omega[/tex]t)+isin(kr-[tex]\omega[/tex]t).

My question is simply.. is this valid? I ask because if you were to integrate the square over an interval you should get a probability, however the imaginary term will carry through from the de Moivre formula. I'm terribly confused.

Thanks guys!