Chen
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- 1
How would one go about solving this?
\int_{ - \infty }^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/\left| q \right|}}dq}
Or,
\int_0^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/q}}dq}
With C > 0 obviously.
I came across this in a physics problem. A solution exists (verified by Mathematica).
Thanks,
Chen
\int_{ - \infty }^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/\left| q \right|}}dq}
Or,
\int_0^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/q}}dq}
With C > 0 obviously.
I came across this in a physics problem. A solution exists (verified by Mathematica).
Thanks,
Chen