Solving a Math Mystery: Wave Functions & Probability Density

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The discussion centers on confusion regarding the dimensions of wave functions and probability density in quantum mechanics. The original poster questions why integrating the probability density does not yield a length, highlighting their misunderstanding of the dimensionality of wave functions. They initially used the non-normalizable wave function e^{ikx} as an example, which led to their confusion. Upon clarification, it is noted that actual wave functions, like the Gaussian wave packet, have dimensions of sqrt(length), and the total probability of a valid wave function should equal 1. The poster acknowledges their mistake and recognizes that their question stemmed from incorrect assumptions.
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Hello!
I study mathematics and am in my sixth year, but...
I have a very elementary question:

I stumbled upon it while learning for quantum mechanics. But it's nothing new, it's happening to me all the time: I get confused by things like this!

Observe the following facts:
Suppose we deal with the space of wave functions over the real line.
The wave function \psi(x) is a complex scalar. Take for example \psi(x)=e^{ikx} (not normalizable, don't need it)
The derivative \psi'(x)=ike^{ikx} has 1/length as it's unit.
Integrating that over some interval yields a scalar. \psi(b)-\psi(a)
The probability density \psi*(x)\psi(x) is a scalar.
Integrating this over the real line (length) gives 1. A scalar...
Shouldn't such an operation yield a length? Am I stupid?

I am not joking. For me this is a mystery.

Thanks for your answers.
 
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When you integrate the probability density (scalar) with respect to length, the answer will have the same dimension (scalar x length).
 
I can't get what you want to calculate and it seems for me that it hardly makes sense, but obvious mistake you did is that \int_a^b\psi^{*}(x)\psi(x) dx is not equal 1, but b-a
 
xts said:
I can't get what you want to calculate and it seems for me that it hardly makes sense, but obvious mistake you did is that \int_b^a\psi^{*}(x)\psi(x) dx is not equal 1, but b-a

Sorry, I was talking about integrating over the whole (1-dimensional) space here (which has the physical dimension of length). And the total probability (of an physical wave function, not the example I used) should be 1.
But I see that my example e^ikx is not an example for a real wave function. And an actual wave function (in 1-space) actually has dimension sqrt(length), as for example the Gaussian wave packet:

\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}} with sigma being a length.

So my question was useless and came from wrong presumptions.
 
So I know that electrons are fundamental, there's no 'material' that makes them up, it's like talking about a colour itself rather than a car or a flower. Now protons and neutrons and quarks and whatever other stuff is there fundamentally, I want someone to kind of teach me these, I have a lot of questions that books might not give the answer in the way I understand. Thanks
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