Unkraut
- 30
- 1
Hello!
I study mathematics and am in my sixth year, but...
I have a very elementary question:
I stumbled upon it while learning for quantum mechanics. But it's nothing new, it's happening to me all the time: I get confused by things like this!
Observe the following facts:
Suppose we deal with the space of wave functions over the real line.
The wave function \psi(x) is a complex scalar. Take for example \psi(x)=e^{ikx} (not normalizable, don't need it)
The derivative \psi'(x)=ike^{ikx} has 1/length as it's unit.
Integrating that over some interval yields a scalar. \psi(b)-\psi(a)
The probability density \psi*(x)\psi(x) is a scalar.
Integrating this over the real line (length) gives 1. A scalar...
Shouldn't such an operation yield a length? Am I stupid?
I am not joking. For me this is a mystery.
Thanks for your answers.
I study mathematics and am in my sixth year, but...
I have a very elementary question:
I stumbled upon it while learning for quantum mechanics. But it's nothing new, it's happening to me all the time: I get confused by things like this!
Observe the following facts:
Suppose we deal with the space of wave functions over the real line.
The wave function \psi(x) is a complex scalar. Take for example \psi(x)=e^{ikx} (not normalizable, don't need it)
The derivative \psi'(x)=ike^{ikx} has 1/length as it's unit.
Integrating that over some interval yields a scalar. \psi(b)-\psi(a)
The probability density \psi*(x)\psi(x) is a scalar.
Integrating this over the real line (length) gives 1. A scalar...
Shouldn't such an operation yield a length? Am I stupid?
I am not joking. For me this is a mystery.
Thanks for your answers.