Solving lim x->0 (1-cosx)/x: Are My Steps Right?

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The limit as x approaches 0 of (1-cosx)/x is initially miscalculated, leading to confusion about the indeterminate form. The correct approach involves recognizing that the expression can be rewritten using the identity sin²x and factoring appropriately. By applying the limit properties and known limits, particularly that sin(x)/x approaches 1, the limit can be computed as 0. It's important to show all steps clearly to avoid confusion and ensure accuracy in calculations. The discussion highlights the necessity of understanding limits and continuity in trigonometric functions for proper evaluation.
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Am i doing these right?

lim x->0 (1-cosx) all over x
=(1-cosx/x)(1+cosx/1+cosx)
=(1-cos^2x)/x(1+cosx)
=(sin^2x)/x(1+cosx)
=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)
=0/2
=0

are my steps right?
 
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Nevermind, that's indeterminate. Your denominator is still 0. You may have to use l'hopitals rule.
 
=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)
=0/2

That step is not right. The top will be 0*(sin²0) which is 0, the bottom will be 0 * 0 * 2 which is 0, not 2.

What you can do is recognize that:

x(sin²x)/x²(1 + cosx)
= [x/(1 + cosx)][sin²x/x²]
= [x/(1 + cosx)](sinx/x)²

The limit as x -> 0 of (sinx/x) exists, and you should know it, and the limit as x -> 0 of [x/(1 + cosx)] exists, and you should be able to easily compute that, so the limit of the product is the product of the limits. That way, you get (0/2)(1)². Perhaps this is how you got rid of the x² on the bottom, and hence went from

=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)

to

=0/2

but it's not clear that you did that. At least show your work. Also, make sure that when you write it, don't just drop the "lim x->0" part until you actually compute it.
 
\frac{1-cos(x)}{x}\frac{1+cos(x)}{1+cos(x)}
=\frac{sin^2(x)}{x(1+cos(x))}
=\frac{sin(x)}{x}\frac{sin(x)}{1+cos(x)}

What exactly do you already know and can use?
If you are allowed to use the well known limit: \frac{sin x}{x} goes to 1 and the facts that sine and cosine are continuous, so that the second fraction goes to 0/2= 0, it follows that the limit is 0.
 
I see no reason why the steps are inorect. Gillgill probably multiplied top and bottom by x, in order to write:

\frac{\sin^2 x}{x(1+cosx)}=\frac{x\sin^2 x}{x^2(1+cosx)}=\left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2\frac{x}{1+\cos x}

so you can use that: \frac{\sin x}{x} goes to one and all three products of limits exist.

\lim _{x \to 0}\left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2\frac{x}{1+\cos x}=(1)(1)(0)=0

EDIT: It doesn't show in the calculations though, nevermind.
 
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An elegant way would have been to use the first 2 terms from cosine's Taylor series around 0...:wink:

Daniel.
 
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