stunner5000pt
- 1,443
- 4
\frac{\partial u}{\partial t} - k \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = 0
for 0 <x < pi, t> 0
u(0,t) = u(\pi,t) = 0
u(x,0) = x (\pi - x)
OK i know the boring part of getting u(x,t) = X(x) T(t)
the infinite series part is hard part
the coefficient c_{n} = \frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin(n(\pi -x)) \sin(nx) = \frac{-2}{\pi} \left(\frac{-1 + (-1)^n}{n}\right) \sin(nx)
the -1^n is from the Cos n pi term taht would coem from the integration
thus n must be odd
c_{n} = \frac{4}{\pi} \frac{1}{2n-1} \sin(nx)
is this good so far?
for 0 <x < pi, t> 0
u(0,t) = u(\pi,t) = 0
u(x,0) = x (\pi - x)
OK i know the boring part of getting u(x,t) = X(x) T(t)
the infinite series part is hard part
the coefficient c_{n} = \frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin(n(\pi -x)) \sin(nx) = \frac{-2}{\pi} \left(\frac{-1 + (-1)^n}{n}\right) \sin(nx)
the -1^n is from the Cos n pi term taht would coem from the integration
thus n must be odd
c_{n} = \frac{4}{\pi} \frac{1}{2n-1} \sin(nx)
is this good so far?