bartadam
- 40
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I am being really thick here
I have this wave equation, the massless klien gordon equation
\partial_{\mu}\partial^{\mu}\phi(x)=0
where the summation over \mu is over 0,1,2,3
the general solution is a superposition of plane waves yes? i.e
\phi(x)=\int d^4 p \overline{\phi}(p)exp(i p_{\mu}x^{\mu})
where \overline{\phi} is the weighting function.
When you susbsitute this back into the klein gordon equation you get down two factors of p, i.e
p_{\mu}p^{\mu} which equals zero. (mass shell constraint), thus satisfying the equation of motion.
My question is, is \overline{\phi}(p) arbitrary? I don't really understand why this is so, let alone believe it.
Hope peeps understand the question.
I have this wave equation, the massless klien gordon equation
\partial_{\mu}\partial^{\mu}\phi(x)=0
where the summation over \mu is over 0,1,2,3
the general solution is a superposition of plane waves yes? i.e
\phi(x)=\int d^4 p \overline{\phi}(p)exp(i p_{\mu}x^{\mu})
where \overline{\phi} is the weighting function.
When you susbsitute this back into the klein gordon equation you get down two factors of p, i.e
p_{\mu}p^{\mu} which equals zero. (mass shell constraint), thus satisfying the equation of motion.
My question is, is \overline{\phi}(p) arbitrary? I don't really understand why this is so, let alone believe it.
Hope peeps understand the question.