Spin 1 Particle in a time dependant magnetic field

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around solving a quantum mechanics problem involving a spin-1 particle in a time-dependent magnetic field. The Hamiltonian is identified as H(t) = γ S_z B(t), and participants are attempting to apply the time-dependent Schrödinger equation. There is confusion regarding the proper substitution of the wave function |ψ,t⟩ into the equation, with suggestions to express it in terms of the coefficients c_i(t). Participants agree that deriving differential equations for each coefficient is the next step, emphasizing the need to solve these equations to progress. Overall, the focus is on clarifying the application of quantum mechanics principles to the problem at hand.
richyw
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Homework Statement



https://fbcdn-sphotos-c-a.akamaihd.net/hphotos-ak-prn2/1483071_10151813160569290_1331827985_n.jpg

Homework Equations



\left|\psi ,t\right\rangle=\sum_i c_i(t)e^{-\frac{i E_n t}{\hbar}}\left|n\right\rangle

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm quite lost on how to even start this. I can work out that the hamiltonian isH(t)=\gamma S_z B(t)Then I tried to put that into the time-dependant shrodinger equation. -i\hbar \frac{d}{dt}\left|\psi(t)\right\rangle=H(t)\left|\psi(t)\right\ranglebut I am not really sure if this is correct or even how to begin solving this.
 
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richyw said:
I'm quite lost on how to even start this. I can work out that the hamiltonian isH(t)=\gamma S_z B(t)Then I tried to put that into the time-dependant shrodinger equation. -i\hbar \frac{d}{dt}\left|\psi(t)\right\rangle=H(t)\left|\psi(t)\right\ranglebut I am not really sure if this is correct or even how to begin solving this.

I think you're on the right track. After substituting the given expression for |ψ(t)> into the Schrodinger equation, you should be able to get a differential equation for each coefficient ci(t).
 
I'm still stuck on this one actually. I don't think I am substituting \left|\psi ,t \right\rangle into the equation properly. How to I get \psi (t) from \left|\psi ,t \right\rangle?
 
wait, can I say\left| \psi ,t \right\rangle=c_1(t)\left| 1,1 \right\rangle+c_2(t)\left| 1,0 \right\rangle+c_3(t)\left| 1,-1 \right\rangle\left| \psi ,t \right\rangle=c_1(t)\left(\begin{matrix}1 \\ 0 \\ 0\end{matrix}\right)+c_2(t)\left(\begin{matrix}0 \\ 1 \\ 0\end{matrix}\right)+c_3(t)\left(\begin{matrix}0 \\ 0 \\ 1\end{matrix}\right)\left| \psi ,t \right\rangle=\left(\begin{matrix} c_1(t) \\ c_2(t) \\ c_3(t)\end{matrix}\right)
 
and then i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}\left| \psi ,t \right\rangle=\gamma B(t) S_z\left| \psi ,t \right\rangle
 
i\hbar \left(\begin{matrix} c'_1(t) \\ c'_2(t) \\ c'_3(t)\end{matrix}\right)=\hbar\gamma B(t)\left(\begin{matrix}1 & 0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&-1\\\end{matrix}\right)\left(\begin{matrix} c_1(t) \\ c_2(t) \\ c_3(t)\end{matrix}\right)
 
and then get c'_1(t)=-i\gamma B(t) c_1(t)c'_2(t)=0c'_3(t)=i\gamma B(t) c_3(t)
 
Yes, that looks good. Just have to solve each of these equations.
 
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