Miike012 Messages 1,009 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Aug 3, 2011 #1 Why arnt the two terms eqaul even though the square root of m was solved properly? And is this a general rule? Attachments confused.jpg 9.9 KB · Views: 498
Why arnt the two terms eqaul even though the square root of m was solved properly? And is this a general rule?
Dick Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 26,254 Reaction score 623 Aug 3, 2011 #2 I think by 'quadratic surd' they mean that sqrt(m) is irrational where m is rational. Your last expression shows sqrt(m) is a ratio of rationals. Wouldn't that always be rational?
I think by 'quadratic surd' they mean that sqrt(m) is irrational where m is rational. Your last expression shows sqrt(m) is a ratio of rationals. Wouldn't that always be rational?