Summing Taylor Series: Tips & Tricks

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the challenges of expressing the Taylor series for sine in summation notation. The correct Taylor series for sin(x) around x=0 is identified as the series involving odd powers of x, specifically \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\). Participants clarify that the original expression provided was incorrect, resembling the series for cos(x²) instead. Tips are offered for recognizing patterns in series, such as identifying odd numbers and the alternating signs. Understanding these patterns is essential for accurately rewriting Taylor series in summation form.
Cpt Qwark
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Expanding the series to the n^{th} derivative isn't so hard, however I'm having trouble with the summation. Any tips for the summation?
e.g. taylor series for sinx around x=0 in summation notation is \sum^\infty_{n=0} \frac{x^{4n}}{2n!}
Thanks.
 
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Cpt Qwark said:
Expanding the series to the n^{th} derivative isn't so hard, however I'm having trouble with the summation. Any tips for the summation?
e.g. taylor series for sinx around x=0 in summation notation is \sum^\infty_{n=0} \frac{x^{4n}}{2n!}
Thanks.
No, it isn't. For one thing, sin(x) is an odd function while your series includes only even power of x. The Taylor's series for sin(x) about x= 0 is \sum_{n=o}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}. What you have appears to be the Taylor's series, about x= 0, for cos(x^2), except that the denominator should be (2n)! rather than 2n!.

In any case, what do you mean "having trouble with the summation". What are you trying to do?
 
(edit: didn't notice HallsOfIvy had already answered)

No, the Taylor series sum around x=0 (i.e. the Maclaurin series sum) for ## \sin x ## is $$ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k x^{(1+2 k)}}{(1+2 k)!} $$. How did you get to the expression you wrote?
 
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HallsofIvy said:
No, it isn't. For one thing, sin(x) is an odd function while your series includes only even power of x. The Taylor's series for sin(x) about x= 0 is \sum_{n=o}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}. What you have appears to be the Taylor's series, about x= 0, for cos(x^2), except that the denominator should be (2n)! rather than 2n!.

In any case, what do you mean "having trouble with the summation". What are you trying to do?

MrAnchovy said:
(edit: didn't notice HallsOfIvy had already answered)

No, the Taylor series sum around x=0 (i.e. the Maclaurin series sum) for ## \sin x ## is $$ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k x^{(1+2 k)}}{(1+2 k)!} $$. How did you get to the expression you wrote?

Yeah sorry turns out it was mistook for another expression.
Anywas, what I meant was I had trouble rewriting the taylor/maclaurin series with a summation notation (Σ). Are there supposed to be patterns that you're supposed to recognise (such as the negative sign for sine and cosine functions) or something?
 
I'm not always in favour of Khan Academy but this might help.
 
Or is it just getting from ## x - \frac{x^3}{3!} +\frac{x^5}{5!} -\frac{x^7}{7!} +\frac{x^9}{9!} - ... ## to the summation formula that is giving you problems?

If so then yes, you need to practice recognising parts of terms like this:
  • first note you can always write ## x ## as ## \frac{x^1}{1!} ##
  • now notice you have odd numbers 1, 3, 5, 7, 9...: you can generate these with ## 2k + 1 ## - that gives you ## \frac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!} ##
  • now you just need the alternating + and - signs: -1 to an even power is 1 and to an odd power is -1 so, making sure you start off with the right one (you want the 0th term to have ## 1 = (-1)^0 ## not ## -1 = (-1)^{0+1} ##) you have ## (-1)^k ##
  • put them all together, add the sum remembering to go from ## k=0 ## - full marks!
 
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