Superparamagents and superhot nanoparticle iron oxide

RealDoctorStu
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
I'm trying to understand superparamagentism. There is an experimental medical treatment that uses the superparamagnetism properties of nanoparticle-sized iron oxide particles. Injected into a cancer tumour, when the person is placed in a rapidly alternating magnetic field, the iron oxide particles heat - effectively burning the tissue into which they are injected.

As far as I understand, when an iron oxide particle is sufficiently small, it acts as a single magnetic domain. And as the particle gets smaller, it's Curie temperature decreases (have I got that right?) to something approaching room temperature - giving it the properties of a superparamagnet.

Quite what this means in terms of iron oxide (which I presume is acting like a paramagnet) and why placing it in an alternating magnetic field will cause it to heat, I do not understand.

Can anyone make sense of this?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hmm, good question. I found the following article about it: http://www.nbnanoscale.com/nB-magnetic-hyperthermia.html

Based off what the article is saying, the heating comes from the friction of the motion of the nanoparticle itself, and the motion of the domain walls in multi-domain particles. In other words, the particle can rotate, which generates heat via friction, or the domain wall between two magnetic domains can move. I'm not quite sure how the latter generates heat, as I don't know much about magnetic domains.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...

Similar threads

Back
Top