Supposly simple balistic motion prob

  • Thread starter Thread starter assaftolko
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Motion
AI Thread Summary
To determine the angle for a ball thrown at 15 m/s to land 21 m away, the equation derived is sin(2θ) = 21g/V0^2, leading to multiple solutions including θ = 33.08° and θ = 56.92°. The discussion explores the periodic nature of the sine function, noting that angles separated by less than 2π can yield the same sine value. The property that sin(a) = sin(π - a) is explained through the unit circle definition of sine. The conversation concludes with an acknowledgment of the mathematical identities involved in these calculations.
assaftolko
Messages
171
Reaction score
0
At what angle relative to the horizon should you throw a ball at V0=15 m/s (from the ground of course) in order for it to hit back the ground a distance of 21m away?

I found that 2θ=66.16+2∏k, and so θ=33.08+∏k, but the truth is that θ=56.92 is also a correct answer! How could I get this answer from the equations??

x(t)=Vocosθt
y(t)=0 at hit so: 0=Vosinθt-0.5gt^2 ... t(impact) = 2V0sinθ/g or 0

back to x: 21=(2sinθcosθVo^2)/g = sin2θ*V0^2 / g and so sin2θ=21g/V0^2
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This follows from sin x = sin (∏ - x).
 
voko said:
This follows from sin x = sin (∏ - x).

wow you're right... so why do we say sin has a period of 2∏ if we can see that angles that are separated less than 2∏ have the same value?
 
f(x) is said to be a-periodic if f(x) = f(x + a). For f(x) = sin x, this works when a = 2∏.

f(x) = f(a - x) is a different property, not periodicity.
 
voko said:
f(x) is said to be a-periodic if f(x) = f(x + a). For f(x) = sin x, this works when a = 2∏.

f(x) = f(a - x) is a different property, not periodicity.

ok so what is this property? where does it come from?
 
assaftolko said:
ok so what is this property? where does it come from?

I am not sure whether it has a special name. You could say that it comes from the definition the sine function on the unit circle. Then it is obvious that the ordinate at some angle a equals the ordinate at (∏ - a).

Another way to see this is by using the identity sin (∏ - a) = sin ∏ cos a - cos ∏ sin a = sin a, because sin ∏ = 0, and cos ∏ = -1.
 
voko said:
I am not sure whether it has a special name. You could say that it comes from the definition the sine function on the unit circle. Then it is obvious that the ordinate at some angle a equals the ordinate at (∏ - a).

Another way to see this is by using the identity sin (∏ - a) = sin ∏ cos a - cos ∏ sin a = sin a, because sin ∏ = 0, and cos ∏ = -1.

tnx a lot!
 
Back
Top