Whenry
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Hello all,
I understand that the taylor expansion for a multidimensional function can be written as
f(\overline{X} + \overline{P}) = f(\overline{X}) + \nabla f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})
where t is on (0,1).
Although I haven't seen that form before, it makes sense.
But I don't understand the integral in the following the Taylor expansion,
\nabla f(\overline{X} + \overline{P}) = \nabla f(\overline{X}) + \int^{1}_{0} \nabla^{2} f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})dt
Could someone help me understand the derivation?
Thank you,
Will
I understand that the taylor expansion for a multidimensional function can be written as
f(\overline{X} + \overline{P}) = f(\overline{X}) + \nabla f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})
where t is on (0,1).
Although I haven't seen that form before, it makes sense.
But I don't understand the integral in the following the Taylor expansion,
\nabla f(\overline{X} + \overline{P}) = \nabla f(\overline{X}) + \int^{1}_{0} \nabla^{2} f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})dt
Could someone help me understand the derivation?
Thank you,
Will
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