nhrock3
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i can't understand how the got this variation of taylor series formula
f(x+h)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(k)}(x)}{k!}(h)^k
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TaylorSeries.html
when around some point there is no x-x_0
f(x+h)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(k)}(x)}{k!}(h)^k
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TaylorSeries.html
when around some point there is no x-x_0