Testing 2 Means: Got 0 in T-Test - Is Something Wrong?

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The discussion centers around a t-test yielding a value of zero when comparing two datasets: actual values (Y) and predicted values (Y-hat) from a regression. It is noted that the means of both datasets are equal, which is a common outcome in regression analysis due to the minimization of residuals, leading to the sum of residuals being zero. This equality of means results in a zero t-test value, raising questions about the validity of the test. The conversation clarifies that this phenomenon occurs only when the regression line includes an intercept; if forced through the origin, the means may differ. The conclusion emphasizes that a zero t-test can indeed occur under these specific circumstances.
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Y: 51 32 30 74 42 35 39 33 55 61
Y-hat: 49 35 29 72 44 32 38 36 57 60

Null hypothesis: mean y-hat = mean y
Alternative hypothesis: not null hypothesis

So I got as a t test 0 and I was wondering if I did something wrong because I never has this case happened to me.

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vanitymdl said:
Y: 51 32 30 74 42 35 39 33 55 61
Y-hat: 49 35 29 72 44 32 38 36 57 60

Null hypothesis: mean y-hat = mean y
Alternative hypothesis: not null hypothesis

So I got as a t test 0 and I was wondering if I did something wrong because I never has this case happened to me.

View attachment 73295
Assuming all the numbers you show were correct, any value of t such that -2.1 < t < 2.1 would be within the acceptance region (of the null hypothesis). It seems a bit coincidental that the two sample means are equal, but I'm getting the same numbers for the two means and the two sample SDs.
 
The standard deviations are not the same. A question: you call one data set yhat: is that really a second data set or are those predicted values of your original data, as from a regression?
 
statdad said:
The standard deviations are not the same. A question: you call one data set yhat: is that really a second data set or are those predicted values of your original data, as from a regression?
They are predicted values from a regression. The thing is that the means are the same giving me a zero t-test. Can that happen? The reason I rejected the null hypothesis is because that is still less than the critical point
 
That will always happen: when you fit a regression line to a set of data you minimize the sum of the squares of the residuals, which is
<br /> \sum (y - \widehat y)^2<br />

A consequence of that fitting process is that the sum of the residuals is zero - that is,

<br /> \sum (y - \widehat y) = 0<br />

which means that

<br /> \sum y = \sum \widehat y<br />

so the means of the original y values and the predicted y values are always the same.

Edited to add: The comments here apply only when the fitted line includes an intercept. If the line is forced to pass through the origin then the residuals no longer sum to zero and the predicted values and actual values do not have the same mean
 
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