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What exactly is the Hilbert space of a massive spin 0 particle in non-relativistic QM? The following construction defines a Hilbert space H, but is it the right one? We could e.g use some subspace of H instead. And what if we use Riemann integrals instead of Lebesgue integrals?
Let G be the set of measurable functions f:\mathbb R^3\rightarrow\mathbb C such that |f|^2 is Lebesgue integrable. Define an equivalence relation on G by saying that f and g are equivalent if the set on which f-g is non-zero has Lebesgue measure 0, and define H to be the set of such equivalence classes. Define the inner product of two arbitrary equivalence classes \bar f and \bar g by
\langle \bar f|\bar g\rangle=\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty d^3x f^*(x) g(x)
where f and g are arbitrary functions in the equivalence classes \bar f and \bar g.
Let G be the set of measurable functions f:\mathbb R^3\rightarrow\mathbb C such that |f|^2 is Lebesgue integrable. Define an equivalence relation on G by saying that f and g are equivalent if the set on which f-g is non-zero has Lebesgue measure 0, and define H to be the set of such equivalence classes. Define the inner product of two arbitrary equivalence classes \bar f and \bar g by
\langle \bar f|\bar g\rangle=\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty d^3x f^*(x) g(x)
where f and g are arbitrary functions in the equivalence classes \bar f and \bar g.