Question regarding a Free particle and Hilbert space (QM)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of the eigenfunction of the Hamiltonian for a free particle in a one-dimensional quantum mechanical system, specifically its relationship to Hilbert space. Participants explore whether this eigenfunction belongs to Hilbert space given its non-square-integrable nature.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the eigenfunction $$ \phi(x) = \frac{e^{ikx}}{\sqrt{2\pi}} $$ does not belong to Hilbert space because it does not satisfy the square-integrability condition.
  • Another participant agrees, stating that if the particle is completely free, the eigenfunction indeed does not belong to Hilbert space.
  • A later reply confirms that the function is not in the Hilbert space of square-integrable functions due to its non-square-integrable nature.
  • One participant references the concept of rigged Hilbert spaces as potentially relevant to the discussion, suggesting it may provide a framework for understanding the issue further.
  • Another participant expresses a personal view that the concept of rigged Hilbert spaces may not be physically important, viewing it as a mathematical tool rather than a fundamental concept.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the eigenfunction does not belong to Hilbert space due to its non-square-integrable nature. However, there is some disagreement regarding the significance of rigged Hilbert spaces in this context.

Contextual Notes

The discussion touches on the limitations of the standard Hilbert space framework in quantum mechanics and the potential need for alternative mathematical structures, such as rigged Hilbert spaces, to address certain issues related to eigenfunctions of unbounded operators.

CGandC
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TL;DR
In quantum mechanics, is the Eigenfunction resulting from the Hamiltonian of a free particle in 1D system, belongs to Hilbert Space?
In quantum mechanics, the Eigenfunction resulting from the Hamiltonian of a free particle in 1D system is $$ \phi = \frac{e^{ikx} }{\sqrt{2\pi} } $$
We know that a function $$ f(x) $$ belongs to Hilbert space if it satisfies $$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} |f(x)|^2 dx < \infty $$

But since the Eigenfunction $$ \phi(x) $$

doesn't satisfy the above condition to belong in Hilbert space:
$$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} |\phi(x)|^2 dx= \infty $$

Therefore, I say that $$ \phi(x) = \frac{e^{ikx} }{\sqrt{2\pi} } $$ does not belong to Hilbert space.

Am I right in my saying? if not, why?
 
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Yes, you are right, if the particle is completely free, i.e. unconstrained to move in 1 dimension from minus infinity to plus infinity.
 
CGandC said:
Summary: In quantum mechanics, is the Eigenfunction resulting from the Hamiltonian of a free particle in 1D system, belongs to Hilbert Space?

In quantum mechanics, the Eigenfunction resulting from the Hamiltonian of a free particle in 1D system is $$ \phi = \frac{e^{ikx} }{\sqrt{2\pi} } $$
We know that a function $$ f(x) $$ belongs to Hilbert space if it satisfies $$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} |f(x)|^2 dx < \infty $$

But since the Eigenfunction $$ \phi(x) $$

doesn't satisfy the above condition to belong in Hilbert space:
$$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} |\phi(x)|^2 dx= \infty $$

Therefore, I say that $$ \phi(x) = \frac{e^{ikx} }{\sqrt{2\pi} } $$ does not belong to Hilbert space.

Am I right in my saying? if not, why?

That function is not in the Hilbert space of square-integrable functions - because it is not square-integrable.
 
I understand.
Thanks for the help!
 
There are some short sections in Ballentine on this. However I personally did not find the whole concept of rigged hilbert spaces to be that physically important, it seemed to me just a mathematical rubber stamp to proceed as we did.
 

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