- #1
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- Homework Statement
- Why is the "physical" electron charge e_0 / (1-Pi(0)) and not e_0 / (1-Pi(q^2))
- Relevant Equations
- (physical charge) = e = sqrt(Z_3) e_0 = sqrt(Z_3) (bare charge)
On p. 246 in the Peskin QFT textbook, below is stated
where Z3 is defined as the residue of the q2 = 0 pole, explicitly as
$$Z_3=\frac{1}{1-\Pi(0)}$$
and e is the bare charge.
In advance, the exact photon two point function is calculated as
$$\frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2(1-\Pi(q^2))}$$
Though the photon propagator should be divided by
$$1-\Pi(q^2)$$
, why the defined "physical" charge is divided by
$$1-\Pi(0)$$
?
Why only the low-q2 scattering is being considered here?
the "physical" electron charge measured in experiments is $$\sqrt{Z_3} e$$
where Z3 is defined as the residue of the q2 = 0 pole, explicitly as
$$Z_3=\frac{1}{1-\Pi(0)}$$
and e is the bare charge.
In advance, the exact photon two point function is calculated as
$$\frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2(1-\Pi(q^2))}$$
Though the photon propagator should be divided by
$$1-\Pi(q^2)$$
, why the defined "physical" charge is divided by
$$1-\Pi(0)$$
?
Why only the low-q2 scattering is being considered here?