Hi, I have a question about a statement I've seen in many a Quantum Field Theory book (e.g. Zee). They say that the general form of the Lagrangian density for a scalar field, once two conditions are imposed: (1) Lorentz invariance, and (2) At most two time derivatives, is: L = 1/2(d\phi)^2 - V(\phi) where V(\phi) is a polynomial in \phi. Why is this? I can understand how the conditions restrict the kinetic energy term to being what it is, but I don't understand why V has to be _polynomial_ in \phi.