karlzr
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In Perkins's Introduction to High Energy Physics, the author obtained the spin of neutral pions from the decay \pi^0 → 2\gamma He argued that the z-component of the total photon spin in the above decay can have the value S_z=0 or 2. If s_\pi=1, then only S_z=0 is possible, and the two-photon amplitude must behave under rotation like P_1^m(\cos \theta) with m=0.
Why does the orbit angular momentum l=1 in his reasoning? Acually I do not understand why only S_z=0 is possible. Since if there is a l_z, then S_z can be both 0 and 2.
Why does the orbit angular momentum l=1 in his reasoning? Acually I do not understand why only S_z=0 is possible. Since if there is a l_z, then S_z can be both 0 and 2.