What is the significance of neutral pions' spin in high energy physics?

karlzr
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In Perkins's Introduction to High Energy Physics, the author obtained the spin of neutral pions from the decay \pi^0 → 2\gamma He argued that the z-component of the total photon spin in the above decay can have the value S_z=0 or 2. If s_\pi=1, then only S_z=0 is possible, and the two-photon amplitude must behave under rotation like P_1^m(\cos \theta) with m=0.
Why does the orbit angular momentum l=1 in his reasoning? Acually I do not understand why only S_z=0 is possible. Since if there is a l_z, then S_z can be both 0 and 2.
 
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How do you get an lz with two photons flying back to back in z-direction? I can imagine how you get lx and ly.
 
mfb said:
How do you get an lz with two photons flying back to back in z-direction? I can imagine how you get lx and ly.

What about the total angular momentum l=1? This is the real issue that bothers me.
 
I think the idea is that you get the total spin as combination of the photon spin (##S_z=0##) and the angular momentum (in a different direction, therefore ##s_\pi \geq S_z##). But that is a bit speculative.
 
photon's mass is zero.the spin component along z-axis can be only +1 or -1.Since it still behaves like boson(integral spin),you should use the same rotation rotation matrix for m=0.If s=1,for pion then of course,0 is the only possible value.
 
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