- #1
conkermaniac
- 11
- 0
This is a question that's been bothering me for a while. Archimedes's principle states that the weight of the water displaced is equal to the buoyant force. If a frictionless box sinks to the bottom of a lake, does it feel a buoyant force? Buoyancy exists because of a difference in pressure between the top and the bottom of the box. If the box is already at the bottom, then there can be no water underneath the box, and consequently no pressure exists underneath the box. If this is so, then does a buoyant force NOT exist? Doesn't this go against Archimedes' principle, which to the best of my knowledge does not contain any exceptions?
Thanks for your help! :)
Thanks for your help! :)