Theory Proving Everything Has a Beginning?

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The discussion centers on theories in physics that suggest everything has a beginning. The Principle of Causality indicates that every event is caused by a prior event, while the concept of a "Prime Mover" from Aquinas relates more to philosophy. General relativity posits that the universe began from a singular state, typically associated with the Big Bang, although uncertainties exist about the exact moment of t = 0. Some participants mention the pre-big bang theory, which proposes events prior to the Big Bang, but its scientific validity is debated. Overall, the conversation explores the intersection of physics and philosophical implications regarding origins.
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I heard there is a theory in physics that proves that everything has a beginning. Is this true? If so, does anyone know the exact name of the theory?


Any help is appreciated.
 
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Originally posted by Cod
I heard there is a theory in physics that proves that everything has a beginning. Is this true? If so, does anyone know the exact name of the theory?


Any help is appreciated.

Perhaps you are referring to the Principle of Causality, which says that every physical event (including the existence of a physical object) is caused by some other, prior event. That's if you're talking about each "thing" individually.

If you're talking about "everything" as a whole, then you probably mean Aquinas's "Prime Mover"*, which is generally considered to belong more to the realm of philosophy than physics.



* frequently referred to hear in the Forums as, "LifeGazer's primary cause argument".:wink:
 
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General relativity says that spacetimes satisfying certain physically reasonable assumptions must have begun a finite time ago in a "singular" state, that is, a state that can't be described by general relativity. It's thought that our universe arose from such a state via the big bang.
 
Everything has a beginning (a source) also in Eugene Savov's theory of interaction. He reduces the physically reasonable assumptions to the pure fact of existence. For details you may see the free sample chapters download at http://www.eugenesavov.com
 


Originally posted by jeff
General relativity says that spacetimes satisfying certain physically reasonable assumptions must have begun a finite time ago in a "singular" state, that is, a state that can't be described by general relativity. It's thought that our universe arose from such a state via the big bang.

That's not quite right. The Big Bang theory can't go back to exactly t = 0. At that point there's a lot of uncertainty as to the physics at that point. There is a theory that states that something came before the big bang - it's called the pre-big bang theory.

Pete
 


Originally posted by pmb
The Big Bang theory can't go back to exactly t = 0. At that point there's a lot of uncertainty as to the physics at that point.

Yes, this is correct. Nonetheless, the phrase "a finite time ago" is the one used in framing the singularity theorems, and I was only trying to indicate that for this reason, GR may have been the theory that the poster was looking for. But again, your statement as I've quoted it is of course correct.

Originally posted by pmb
There is a theory that states that something came before the big bang - it's called the pre-big bang theory.

If causation breaks down, then so does the notion of "before": Pre-big bang theory is more ill-defined idea than bonafide scientific theory.
 


Originally posted by jeff
Yes, this is correct. Nonetheless, the phrase "a finite time ago" is the one used in framing the singularity theorems, and I was only trying to indicate that for this reason, GR may have been the theory that the poster was looking for. But again, your statement as I've quoted it is of course correct.



If causation breaks down, then so does the notion of "before": Pre-big bang theory is more ill-defined idea than bonafide scientific theory.

Nothing about pre-big bang violates causation - so why do you bring it up?
 

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