This summation sums to zero. Why?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around a mathematical expression involving a summation that purportedly equals zero, depending on the definitions of λ, r, and L. Participants clarify that the equality may not hold universally and emphasize the need for specific definitions. One contributor suggests defining λ(m) as m and setting L and r to 2, leading to a calculation that results in 1/6, not zero. This indicates that the original claim may be incorrect or requires further context. The conversation highlights the importance of precise definitions in mathematical equations.
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Hi,

I am reading a paper, and at some point the authors claim that:

\sum_{m=1}^{L+1}\frac{\prod_{\substack{l=1\\l\neq m}}^{L+1}\frac{\lambda(m)}{\lambda(m)-\lambda(l)}}{\lambda^r(m)}=0

the question is HOW?

Any tiny hint will be highly appreciated.

Thanks
 
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In general there is no equality.
It must depend on the definitions of λ, r and L.
Can you provide more details?
 
Amir Livne said:
In general there is no equality.
It must depend on the definitions of λ, r and L.
Can you provide more details?

Lambdas are positive numbers, r is between 1 and L. That is all
 
I don't think that is correct.

Define \lambda(m)=m, and pick L=r=2. Then
\frac{\frac{\lambda(1)}{\left(\lambda(1)-\lambda(2)\right)\left(\lambda(1)-\lambda(3)\right)}}{\lambda(1)^2}+\frac{\frac{\lambda(2)}{\left(\lambda(2)-\lambda(1)\right)\left(\lambda(2)-\lambda(3)\right)}}{\lambda(2)^2}+\frac{\frac{\lambda(3)}{\left(\lambda(3)-\lambda(1)\right)\left(\lambda(3)-\lambda(2)\right)}}{\lambda(3)^2}=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{6}
 
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