Thompson's Absolute Electrometer

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The discussion centers on the relationship between electric force and gravitational force in the context of Thompson's Absolute Electrometer. It posits that when two charged discs are held together by electric attraction, the electric force can be equated to the gravitational force when the weight is removed. The equation Wg = (V^2A)/[(8PI)D^2] is presented, where V represents voltage, A is the area of the top disc, and D is the distance between the discs. The significance of the factor 8π in the equation is questioned, highlighting a need for clarification on its role in the relationship between electric and gravitational forces. The lack of responses suggests a gap in understanding or engagement with the topic.
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Suppose that the force needed to push a disc down on top of another disk = weight x g, then the two discs are charged with opposite quantities of electricity, then the weight removed, and still the discs remain together due to the force of attraction between the discs; so then the electric force between them is equal to the force from the weight, right? this implies that Wg = (V^2A)/[(8PI)D^2], V is voltage, A is the area of the top disc, D is the distance between them: How to explain the equation? what is the significance of 8pi?
 
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X53 said:
Suppose that the force needed to push a disc down on top of another disk = weight x g, then the two discs are charged with opposite quantities of electricity, then the weight removed, and still the discs remain together due to the force of attraction between the discs; so then the electric force between them is equal to the force from the weight, right? this implies that Wg = (V^2A)/[(8PI)D^2], V is voltage, A is the area of the top disc, D is the distance between them: How to explain the equation? what is the significance of 8pi?
Why doesn't anyone answer?
 
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'

Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'

So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...
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