Boing3000 said:
In both those frame there is no local gravity/acceleration, but I think the gravitational potential (hence time ratio) is somewhat different along the vertical axis in both ship (and rapidly changing in ship 1
Strictly speaking, "gravitational potential" is a property of the spacetime, not the object, and it is only well-defined to begin with in a special class of spacetimes, called "stationary spacetimes". In such spacetimes, any two objects at the same spatial location have the same gravitational potential.
However, this does not mean they necessarily have the same time dilation factor. See below.
Boing3000 said:
When both ship are at the same altitude, do they experience (locally) the same time dilatation ?
No. First let's take the simplest case, where the vertically free-falling ship has just started falling from rest at that altitude (it has just turned off its rockets and stopped "hovering", or it was free-falling upward and has just reached its maximum altitude and is starting to fall back down again). In this case, the (instantaneous) time dilation factor of the vertically free-falling ship will be the same as that of a "hovering" ship at the same altitude, i.e., ##\sqrt{1 - 2M / r}## (in units where ##G = c = 1##). But the orbiting ship will have a time dilation factor of ##\sqrt{1 - 3M / r}##, i.e., a larger one.
The extra time dilation is due to the orbiting ship's motion; in general, in a stationary spacetime, we can split up any object's time dilation factor into two pieces, a gravitational piece (which depends only on its position, as above), and a piece due to velocity relative to a static observer (i.e., an observer whose position is not changing) at the same position. The general formula for the time dilation factor is then ##\sqrt{1 + 2 \phi - v^2}##, where ##\phi## is the gravitational potential. In the case we're discussing, where the gravitating mass is spherically symmetric and static, we have ##\phi = - M / r##, and an object in a free-fall circular orbit has ##v = \sqrt{M / r}##; plugging these in will give you the specific formulas I quoted above.
Boing3000 said:
If the tidal force (the radial angle difference) is manageable, I suppose the time dilation must be quite weak too.
No. The two are not related, for much the same reasons that the tidal gravity and proper acceleration are not related. See my previous post.
Boing3000 said:
I think SlowThinker has inverted the gravitational time dilatation effect, because his toes are not supposed to turn to dust, but his head is
No. Tidal gravity, when it gets strong enough, will affect both his head and his feet; it will "try" to make them separate rapidly, and at some point the structural strength of his body will be overcome and his whole body will turn to dust. Assuming his body is small compared to the size of the black hole, one end won't be affected significantly before the other end is.
SlowThinker said:
I'm pretty sure that for an object in free fall, the time dilation is the same throughout the volume, or at least nearly the same - it follows from the equivalence principle.
Yes; more precisely, it follows from the EP plus the assumption that the object's size is very small compared to the size of the black hole (roughly speaking, to the radius ##r = 2M## of its horizon).
SlowThinker said:
Further, a free falling object is gaining speed, which, due to Lorentzian time dilation, is exactly equal to the gravitational dilation at any lower height (or at least I am sure it is), so no paradox there.
I'm not sure what you mean by this. Gravitational time dilation and "Lorentzian" time dilation (by which I assume you mean time dilation due to velocity, which I explained above) are two different things.