Total Angular Momentum Measurements

andre220
Messages
75
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


Consider a particle with orbital momentum ##l=1## and spin ##s = 1/2## to be in the state described by
$$\Psi = \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}| 1,1\rangle|\downarrow\rangle+\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}|1,0\rangle|\uparrow\rangle$$

If the total angular momentum is measured what would be the possible outcomes? What are the corresponding probabilities?

Homework Equations


##\mathbf{J} = \mathbf{L}+\mathbf{S}##

The Attempt at a Solution


Okay, so on the surface this seems pretty simple, but I want to make sure that I am not thinking about this wrong.

For the first state: ##J=1-1/2 =1/2## with probability ##1/5## and the second state ##J=1+1/2=3/2## with probability ##4/5##. Is this correct?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, it's not correct. You need to express the state in terms of eigenstates of ##J^2##.
 
On second looks, it's not as easy as I thought. For some reason I thought it was ##|j,m\rangle## and instead it is ##|l,m\rangle|s_z\rangle##

What would be a good way to approach this problem? In thinking about it again, I need to determine ##j##, but I am not sure how to go about doing so.
 
Look up the appropriate Clebsch-Gordon coefficients.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top