Transition probability and superposition

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the transition probability of a particle in an infinite potential well, specifically when the box size changes from L to 2L. The wavefunction is expressed as a superposition of energy eigenstates, with the integral |\int\phi^{*}_{1}(x)\psi_{1}(x)dx|^{2} determining the probability of finding the particle in the ground state of the new box. The confusion arises regarding the probability of the particle being in a non-allowed state when the box size remains the same, highlighting that the integral's limits affect the outcome, yet the integral itself remains valid due to the properties of the wavefunction.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wavefunctions and energy eigenstates.
  • Familiarity with the concept of infinite potential wells in quantum mechanics.
  • Knowledge of integrals and their application in calculating probabilities in quantum systems.
  • Basic grasp of superposition and measurement in quantum mechanics.
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  • Study the mathematical formulation of wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
  • Explore the implications of changing boundary conditions in quantum systems.
  • Learn about transition probabilities and their significance in quantum mechanics.
  • Investigate the concept of allowed and non-allowed states in quantum systems.
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Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists studying particle behavior in potential wells, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum probability.

amjad-sh
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Hello
suppose that we are dealing with a particle moving in an infinite potential well(a box of length L).
Let the wavefunction of the particle be [itex]\psi(x,t)=c1\psi_{1}(x,t)+...+cn\psi_{n}(x,t)[/itex]
suppose that after measurement we find the particle at the energy eigenstate [itex]\psi_{1}(x,t)[/itex].
Now let's change the size of the box to 2L. Let's find the probability of the particle being in state [itex]\phi_{1}(x)[/itex] which is the ground state of the new box.The answer is [itex]|\int\phi^{*}_{1}(x)\psi_{1}(x)dx|^{2}[/itex],which may in many cases be not equal to zero.
My confusion is here: what if we didn't change the box and we computed the same integral above, which is the probability of the particle to be in state [itex]\phi_{1}(x)[/itex] and it is a non allowed state, the probability of course will not be zero because it is the same integral above.
How the probability of the particle in being in a non allowed state can be not equal to zero ?
 
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It's not the same integral as the limits are different.
 
Jilang said:
It's not the same integral as the limits are different.
No it is the same since [itex]\psi_{1}(x)[/itex]=0 for x outside the interval [0,L].
 

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