Let 0-->M-->V-->W-->0 be an exact sequence of algebra's.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

We can then see that W = V/M. (is this true? Wouldn't W = V/Im(M)?)

Then i wrote 'codimension 1 in a nilpotent algebra,' no idea why i wrote it.

Anyone, if V is a nilpotent algebra, then V^2 < V.

Let M be a comdension 1 subspace of V containing V^2, then M is an ideal. (Why is this?)

The algebra structure of W is trivial. (Why is this?)

If anyone can shed some light on any of this it would be much appreciated.

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# Trying to understand notes, any feedback is appreciated

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