Two energy level system calculate average occupancy

Bananen
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
Hi!

I need help with the following question:
A system has two energy levels, ε and ε1 that can be occupied by fermions (spin=1/2) that are non-interacting from a reservoir at temperature T and chemical potential μ. Compute the avarage occupation number of the state with energy ε.

I have written down the grand canonical partition function and it is (1+e^(-β(ε-μ))^2)((1+e^(-β(ε1-μ)))^2)

and I know the formula for avarage occupation number for fermions is
ΣnP(n) where n goes from 0 to 1.

But then I'm stuck. The hint I got was that there can be up to four particles and there are different possibilities to put these into the energy levels.

Very thankful for any help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The answer to this question is as follows:The average occupation number of the state with energy ε is given by:N_ε = 1/Z * (1+e^(-β(ε-μ)))^2 where Z is the grand canonical partition function. This can be calculated by considering the different possibilities for the four particles to occupy the two energy levels: 1 particle in ε and 3 in ε1; 2 particles in ε and 2 in ε1; 3 particles in ε and 1 in ε1; 4 particles in ε and 0 in ε1.The probability of each case is given by the ratio of the corresponding partition function to the total partition function, which is the grand canonical partition function. For example, the probability of having 1 particle in ε and 3 in ε1 is given by: P_1ε_3ε1 = (1+e^(-β(ε-μ)))^2/(1+e^(-β(ε-μ)))^2 + (1+e^(-β(ε1-μ)))^4Calculating the probability of all four cases and summing them up gives the desired result: N_ε = 1/Z * (1+e^(-β(ε-μ)))^2 + (1+e^(-β(ε1-μ)))^2 * [ (1+e^(-β(ε-μ)))^2 + (1+e^(-β(ε1-μ)))^2 ]
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top