Two parallel opposed Co-60 Gamma Ray beams in Excel

Hayool
Messages
14
Reaction score
0
Hi everyone,
I have this question about POP.

Assume a patient separation of 20cm. Using data for 6MV , FS 10x10 cm, plot the depth dose for one beam at 2 cm intervals. Include on your plot the dose at dmax and the dose at 20-dmax.
On the same graph repeat this for the opposed beam. Now plot the sum of the depth doses on the same graph.
Renormalize this POP distribution to 100% at midplane.
data are attached.

I tried to solve it in excel but the but i got the graph little bit different than what our teacher told us :nb)

Please help.

Thanks.
 

Attachments

  • DATA.png
    DATA.png
    37.5 KB · Views: 510
  • POP.png
    POP.png
    7.8 KB · Views: 499
  • DATA.png
    DATA.png
    37.5 KB · Views: 522
  • POP.png
    POP.png
    8.7 KB · Views: 483
Physics news on Phys.org
Beam 2 has an odd shape.

Independent of that: Why does it start with 100% relative dose at 30 cm?
Hayool said:
Assume a patient separation of 20cm.
Where did you use this?
 
I did not use that i only used the the data in the table, did not know how to use the separation:frown:
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top