Understanding Boltzman Equation: Probability of Energy in an Ideal Gas

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The Boltzmann equation provides the probability P(E_i) that a randomly selected atom from an ideal gas at temperature K has energy E_i, indicating it pertains to individual particles rather than the entire gas. The discussion clarifies that the ratio of probabilities for finding atoms with specific energies aligns with their numerical ratio, particularly as the number of particles increases. However, this relationship holds true even with a limited number of particles, as the probabilities reflect the actual distribution of energies. The concept emphasizes that a larger number of particles helps to better illustrate the energy distribution. Understanding these principles is crucial for grasping the statistical mechanics of ideal gases.
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1)Boltzman equation states that P(E_i)=g_i * exp(-E_i/kT) / Sigma_j(g_j * exp(-E_j/kT)).
Does it tell us that the probability that the energy of an atom which we have selected from an ideal gas with tempreture K be E_i? Whether it is the probability the energy of whole gas be E_i?
2) why the ratio of the probability of finding atoms with a specific energy is the same as the ration of their number, when the number of atoms goes to infinity?
 
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shirin said:
Hi
1)Boltzman equation states that P(E_i)=g_i * exp(-E_i/kT) / Sigma_j(g_j * exp(-E_j/kT)).
Does it tell us that the probability that the energy of an atom which we have selected from an ideal gas with tempreture K be E_i? Whether it is the probability the energy of whole gas be E_i?
The first one-- it's the probability that a given particle that is randomly chosen will have energy E_i.
2) why the ratio of the probability of finding atoms with a specific energy is the same as the ration of their number, when the number of atoms goes to infinity?
Because if you are choosing a particle at random, the probability it will have a certain attribute equals the fraction of the particles that have that attribute.
 
about question 2:
I don't unserstand why it happens when the number of particles goes to infinity. I mean isn't it true for a limited number of particles?
 
Yes, it is not necessary to have a large number of particles. All that does is "fill in" the distribution, so the probabilities also correspond to the actual distribution you get.
 
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