- #1
PFuser1232
- 479
- 20
In classical physics, when we say, for example:
$$\sum_{}^{} \vec{F}_r = -mr \omega^2 \hat{r}$$
are we saying that the force is what changes ##\omega## and keeps ##r## constant, which results in circular motion? Or are we saying that ##\omega## is what "causes the force"? Or are we just saying that if ##\vec{F}_r##, ##r##, and ##\omega## satisfy the above equation, then the motion in circular?
More generally, when we say ##\sum_{}^{} \vec{F} = m \vec{a}## are we saying that "force causes acceleration"? Or are we saying (in an inertial reference frame) "the particle has a nonzero acceleration, therefore, a force must have acted upon it".
$$\sum_{}^{} \vec{F}_r = -mr \omega^2 \hat{r}$$
are we saying that the force is what changes ##\omega## and keeps ##r## constant, which results in circular motion? Or are we saying that ##\omega## is what "causes the force"? Or are we just saying that if ##\vec{F}_r##, ##r##, and ##\omega## satisfy the above equation, then the motion in circular?
More generally, when we say ##\sum_{}^{} \vec{F} = m \vec{a}## are we saying that "force causes acceleration"? Or are we saying (in an inertial reference frame) "the particle has a nonzero acceleration, therefore, a force must have acted upon it".