Understanding Independence in Probability: An Example

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 2K views
mateomy
Messages
305
Reaction score
0
The question in my book is posed as:

Find an example in which [itex]P(AB) < P(A)P(B)[/itex].
The answer is given as a coin toss letting A be the event of obtaining heads and B being the even of obtaining tails. I'm confused as to how that's working.

My understanding is no doubt 'off', but I thought it was
[tex] P(\frac{1}{2} * \frac{1}{2}) = \frac{1}{2} * \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
because the probabilities for both are [itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex]. So they are equivalent at [itex]\frac{1}{4}[/itex]. Clearly I'm incorrect, can someone point out why?

Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
mateomy said:
The question in my book is posed as:

Find an example in which [itex]P(AB) < P(A)P(B)[/itex].
The answer is given as a coin toss letting A be the event of obtaining heads and B being the even of obtaining tails. I'm confused as to how that's working.

My understanding is no doubt 'off', but I thought it was
[tex] P(\frac{1}{2} * \frac{1}{2}) = \frac{1}{2} * \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
because the probabilities for both are [itex]\frac{1}{2}[/itex]. So they are equivalent at [itex]\frac{1}{4}[/itex]. Clearly I'm incorrect, can someone point out why?

Thanks.

AB is shorthand for the cases where A is true AND B is true. Wouldn't it be true that the probability of getting heads AND tails is 0?
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
That clarifies everything. Thank you.