Understanding Orthogonality in Wavefunctions

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To demonstrate that two wavefunctions are orthogonal, it is not necessary to normalize them first; the inner product must simply equal zero. Orthogonality indicates that the wavefunctions are independent, akin to perpendicular vectors in Euclidean space. Normalization, which adjusts the magnitude to unit length, is a separate process that leads to the concept of orthonormality. Therefore, orthogonal wavefunctions can exist without being normalized. Understanding this distinction is crucial in quantum mechanics and wavefunction analysis.
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Homework Statement



If you want to show two wavefunctions are orthogonal, do you have to normalize the wavefunctions first then take the integral of the product and see if they're equal to 0?

Homework Equations


n/a


The Attempt at a Solution


not really applicable. I just want a explanation.
 
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Nope. Orthogonality just requires the inner product to be zero.

A good visualization (though not in Hilbert space): In Euclidean 3-space (where inner product is the dot product) orthogonal vectors are perpendicular. Normalization scales vectors to the unit length. Heres the point: two vectors are perpendicular (orthogonal) regardless of their magnitude.

Normalized, orthogonal vectors have a name too: orthonormal.
 
okay thank you for the help!
 
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