Understanding the Vector Laplacian in the Navier Stokes Equations

Brad_Ad23
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I recently came across the vector version of the Navier Stokes equations for fluid flow.

\displaystyle{\frac{\partial \mathbf{u}}{\partial \mathbf{t}}} + ( \mathbf{u} \cdot \bigtriangledown) \mathbf{u} = v \bigtriangleup \mathbf{u} - grad \ p

Ok, all is well until \bigtriangleup. I know this represents the laplacian. What is the formulation of the Laplacian for this since it is a vector? Is it just simply the second partials dot product with the respective terms of the vector? Or is it something else?

edit: changed text where I say problem is \bigtriangledown to the appropriate \bigtriangleup
 
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For whatever reason, I can't seem to use laTex ... have to do a bit more reading first.

But, are you sure that the delta you've picked out is the Laplacian ... looks like grad to me.
 
Yes that is the Laplacian. Apparently they use that delta to represent it, it is also written as \bigtriangledown^2
 
\nabla^2\boldsymbol{v}=\nabla\left(\nabla\cdot\boldsymbol{v}\right)-\nabla\times\left(\nabla\times\boldsymbol{v}\right)
 
So let me make sure I have this straight.

\bigtriangledown^2 \ v = grad \ div \ v - curl \ curl \ v
 
I believe that is the correct interpretation.
 
Well, that is an identity for the operators. But why don't you like the idea of the usual Laplacian acting on a vector? It's just a derivative operator, which is allowable on vectors as long as you remember that the basis vectors also have to be differentiated.

dhris
 
Originally posted by Brad_Ad23
So let me make sure I have this straight.

\bigtriangledown^2 \ v = grad \ div \ v - curl \ curl \ v

these operations are not associative, so you should not remove the parantheses.
 

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