- #1

- 572

- 83

https://projecteuclid.org/journals/...ws-of-black-hole-mechanics/cmp/1103858973.pdf

It discusses the Kerr solution for the case of { M

^{4}> J

^{2}} where M is mass & J is angular momentum. However it seems that angular momentum should have the units { M L

^{2}T

^{-1}}, which would means that M is equivalent to { L

^{2}T

^{-1}}. I could see how M is equivalent to { L

^{2}T

^{-2}}.

What am I missing here?