SarthakC
- 10
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Hi,
Is the following integral well defined? If it is, then what does it evaluate to?
\int_{-1}^{1} \delta(x) \Theta(x) \mathrm{d}x
where \delta(x) is the dirac delta function, and \Theta(x) is the the Heaviside step function.
What about if I choose two functions f_k and g_k, which are such that f_k \rightarrow \delta(x) and g_k \rightarrow \Theta(x)? Will this integral converge? I understand that if i choose f_k and g_k such that f_k = g'_k then this integral will evaluate to 1/2, but what if i choose other independent representation of these functions?
Is the following integral well defined? If it is, then what does it evaluate to?
\int_{-1}^{1} \delta(x) \Theta(x) \mathrm{d}x
where \delta(x) is the dirac delta function, and \Theta(x) is the the Heaviside step function.
What about if I choose two functions f_k and g_k, which are such that f_k \rightarrow \delta(x) and g_k \rightarrow \Theta(x)? Will this integral converge? I understand that if i choose f_k and g_k such that f_k = g'_k then this integral will evaluate to 1/2, but what if i choose other independent representation of these functions?
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