Variation of Lagrangian under Lorentz transformations

jinawee
Messages
26
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement



Prove that under an infinitesimal Lorentz transformation: x^\mu \to x^\mu+\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu so: \phi\to\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi the Lagrangian varies as:

\delta \mathcal{L}=-\partial_\mu(\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu \mathcal{L})



The Attempt at a Solution



The new Lagrangian will be:

<br /> \mathcal{L}(\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi,\partial_\sigma(\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi))

The variation is:

<br /> \delta\mathcal{L}=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi}\delta\phi+\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\partial_\sigma \delta \phi=-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[x^\nu\partial_\mu \phi \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi}+\partial_\sigma(x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi)\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\right]


If the last term in the sum vanished somehow, I would arrive to the solution, but I can't see how it is zero. Or have I made a mistake before?

I think I've done some progress:

-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[\partial_\sigma(x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi)\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\right]=-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[ \partial_\mu\phi\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\nu\phi)}+x^\nu \partial_\mu\phi\mathcal{L}\right]=

Could I use Euler-Lagrange equations to make this zero?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Seems to me that there is a simple answer: what kind of field is the lagrangian density? How do these fields transform? And then with a property of ##\omega## it seems ok.

In your calculations I think there is something wrong with ##\partial_{\sigma}##: it's not a scalar.
 
Could you develop

\delta \mathcal{L}=-\partial_\mu(\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu \mathcal{L})
 
I'm going to bed...

$$ \partial_{\sigma}\phi \to \partial_{\sigma}\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\partial_\sigma\phi+\omega^\mu_\sigma\partial_\mu\phi $$
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top