Velocity of mechanical waves

  • Thread starter toam
  • Start date
13
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Ok, so the velocity of mechanical waves through a medium is equal to the square root of some elastic property divided by some inertial property...

I did a quick search on google and a couple of text books and cannot find any actual explanation as to why this is. It is intuitive, yes, but surely there is a decent explanation somewhere?
 
Not sure exactly what you want, but for a http://www.physicsclassroom.com/Class/sound/U11L1a.html" [Broken] description.

If you want http://www.mcasco.com/p1mw.html" [Broken].

If you want the http://scienceworld.wolfram.com/physics/WaveVelocity.html" [Broken].

If you want to know about http://www.vims.edu/physical/research/TCTutorial/longwaves.htm" [Broken], (not tidal), this goes into some description about what the water is actually doing in waves in general, tide waves in particular.
 
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