Ok, so the velocity of mechanical waves through a medium is equal to the square root of some elastic property divided by some inertial property...
I did a quick search on google and a couple of text books and cannot find any actual explanation as to why this is. It is intuitive, yes, but surely there is a decent explanation somewhere?
I did a quick search on google and a couple of text books and cannot find any actual explanation as to why this is. It is intuitive, yes, but surely there is a decent explanation somewhere?