Wave-function solution under Galilean transformations

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of Galilean transformations on wave-function solutions in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the relationship between potential functions and their transformed counterparts. Participants explore the mathematical expressions and their consistency under these transformations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the derivation of the term involving the potential function and its transformation, suggesting a contradiction in the expressions presented.
  • Another participant agrees with the first and reiterates the relationship between the potential functions under Galilean transformations, providing the mathematical expressions that define these relationships.
  • A later reply seeks an intuitive explanation for how the transformations of position and momentum imply the consistency of the potential functions, indicating a desire for deeper understanding beyond mere calculations.
  • Another participant echoes the request for an intuitive explanation and elaborates on the nature of potential functions as scalar quantities that remain unchanged under transformations, introducing a general framework for non-singular transformations.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the mathematical relationships defined by Galilean transformations, but there is ongoing debate regarding the implications and intuitive understanding of these relationships.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the nature of potential functions as scalar quantities and the validity of the transformations, which may not be universally accepted without further clarification.

Happiness
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How do we get (5.381)?

The term involving ##V## in (5.378) is ##V(r' + vt, t)\ \Psi(r' + vt, t)##. After dividing on both sides of (5.378) by the exponential term ##e^{[i(mv.r' + mv^2t/2)/\hbar]}## [which appears in (5.379)], the term becomes ##V(r' + vt, t)\ \Psi(r', t)##. But the term as given in (5.380) is ##V'(r', t)\ \Psi(r', t)##. This means that we must have ##V'(r', t) = V(r' + vt, t) = V(r, t)##, which contradicts (5.381).

I've worked out the other terms and they are correct.

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I think you are right. Under Galileian transformations one should have
$$V'(\vec{r}',t')=V(\vec{r},t)=V(\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t',t'),$$
because
$$\vec{r}=\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t', \quad \vec{p}=\vec{p}'+m \vec{v}, \quad t=t'.$$
 
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vanhees71 said:
I think you are right. Under Galileian transformations one should have
$$V'(\vec{r}',t')=V(\vec{r},t)=V(\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t',t'),$$
because
$$\vec{r}=\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t', \quad \vec{p}=\vec{p}'+m \vec{v}, \quad t=t'.$$

Is there an explanation (intuitive or otherwise) how $$\vec{r}=\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t', \quad \vec{p}=\vec{p}'+m \vec{v}, \quad t=t'$$ implies or is consistent with $$V'(\vec{r}',t')=V(\vec{r},t)$$? I mean apart from doing the calculations after substituting (5.379) into (5.378).
 
Happiness said:
Is there an explanation (intuitive or otherwise) how $$\vec{r}=\vec{r}'+\vec{v} t', \quad \vec{p}=\vec{p}'+m \vec{v}, \quad t=t'$$ implies or is consistent with $$V'(\vec{r}',t')=V(\vec{r},t)$$? I mean apart from doing the calculations after substituting (5.379) into (5.378).
Because the potential is a scalar function of the coordinates and time, i.e., its value stay the same if you transform it. Suppose you have the following non-singular transformations
[tex]\bar{x} = f(x), \ \ \ \bar{t} = g(t) .[/tex]
Since the transformations are non-singular, you can solve for [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]t[/itex]:
[tex]x = f^{-1}(\bar{x}) , \ \ \ t = g^{-1}(\bar{t}) .[/tex]
Now, substitute the solutions in the original potential function
[tex]V(x,t) = V(f^{-1}(\bar{x}) , g^{-1}(\bar{t}) ) ,[/tex]
and call the new function on the right-hand-side [itex]\bar{V}(\bar{x},\bar{t})[/itex].
 
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