maverick280857
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Hi
I was studying the WLLN and the CLT. A form of WLLN states that if X_{n} is a sequence of random variables, it satisfies WLLN if there exist sequences a_{n} and b_{n} such that b_{n} is positive and increasing to infinity such that
\frac{S_{n}-a_{n}}{b_{n}} \rightarrow 0
[convergence in probability and hence convergence in law] where S_{n} = \sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}. For now, suppose the random variables are independent and identically distributed and also have finite variance \sigma^2.
The Lindeberg Levy Central Limit Theorem states that
\frac{S_{n}-E(S_{n})}{\sqrt{Var(S_{n})}} \rightarrow N(0,1)
[convergence in law]
Now, if we take a_{n} = E(S_{n}) and b_{n} = \sqrt{Var(S_{n})} = \sigma\sqrt{n}, conditions of both the theorems are satisfied. But, the limiting random variables are different. In the first case, the normalized random variable tends to a random variable degenerate at 0 (in law/distribution) whereas using CLT, it tends to a Normally distributed random variable with mean 0 and variance 1.
Does this mean that convergence in law is not unique? What are the implications of these results?
Thanks.
I was studying the WLLN and the CLT. A form of WLLN states that if X_{n} is a sequence of random variables, it satisfies WLLN if there exist sequences a_{n} and b_{n} such that b_{n} is positive and increasing to infinity such that
\frac{S_{n}-a_{n}}{b_{n}} \rightarrow 0
[convergence in probability and hence convergence in law] where S_{n} = \sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}. For now, suppose the random variables are independent and identically distributed and also have finite variance \sigma^2.
The Lindeberg Levy Central Limit Theorem states that
\frac{S_{n}-E(S_{n})}{\sqrt{Var(S_{n})}} \rightarrow N(0,1)
[convergence in law]
Now, if we take a_{n} = E(S_{n}) and b_{n} = \sqrt{Var(S_{n})} = \sigma\sqrt{n}, conditions of both the theorems are satisfied. But, the limiting random variables are different. In the first case, the normalized random variable tends to a random variable degenerate at 0 (in law/distribution) whereas using CLT, it tends to a Normally distributed random variable with mean 0 and variance 1.
Does this mean that convergence in law is not unique? What are the implications of these results?
Thanks.
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