What is the derivation and meaning behind the SO(2,1) invariance algebra?

askalot
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Hello,
Please excuse me about my ignorance.
I would like to know how SO(2,1) Lie algebra, is derived from operators and commutators.
I have some notes, that the Lie algebra of SO(2,1) is derived from:
[D,H]=-iH
[K,D]=-iK
[H,K]=2iD
where D, H, and K are the "generators".
I have no clue what does the word "generators" mean, nor how commutators derive an algebra.
Please let me know.
Thank you,
Askalot.
 
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Imagine a member of SO(2,1) (M) which is very close to identity. So you can taylor expand it:
<br /> M \approx I+\varepsilon^\mu L_\mu<br />
Where I have used the Einstein summation convention and \mu runs through the dimensions of the lie group. The operators(marices) L_\mu are called the generators.
So just find out the dimensions of your lie group, then consider all its parameters to be infinitesimals and then expand w.r.t. those parameters to first order. The operator multiplying the infinitesimal corresponding to a dimension, is the generator in that dimension.
Then you should only determine the commutators of these operators.
 
I found in some notes, that H=Hamiltonian= \frac{1}{2} \nabla^2 + \upsilon\delta(r) and it does not contain dimensional parameters,
D = dilation operator = tH - (rp + pr) and $\frac{dD}{dt} = 0$, and
$K = -t^2H + 2tD + \frac{1}{2}r^2$ and $\frac{dK}{dt} = 0$.
It states that the invariance algebra, following from the above is SO(2,1).

Still I cannot understand why and how, were these operators D, K defined and also, how you can derive SO(2,1) out of them!
Thank you for your time,
Askalot.
 
askalot said:
I found in some notes, that H=Hamiltonian= \frac{1}{2} \nabla^2 + \upsilon\delta(r) and it does not contain dimensional parameters,
D = dilation operator = tH - (rp + pr) and $\frac{dD}{dt} = 0$, and
$K = -t^2H + 2tD + \frac{1}{2}r^2$ and $\frac{dK}{dt} = 0$.
It states that the invariance algebra, following from the above is SO(2,1).

Still I cannot understand why and how, were these operators D, K defined and also, how you can derive SO(2,1) out of them!
Thank you for your time,
Askalot.
See this post
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/why-is-lorentz-group-in-3d-sl-2-r.764072/#post-4815039
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

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