What Is the Magnetic Flux through a Loop in a Solenoid?

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SUMMARY

The magnetic flux through a loop in a solenoid can be calculated using the formula Φ = B * A * cos(θ). In this discussion, a wire circle with a radius of 0.050 m is placed in a solenoid of length 0.20 m, with 1000 turns and a current of 0.50 A. The magnetic field B is determined to be 0.031 T, and the area A of the loop is calculated as 1.5e-4 m². The angle θ between the magnetic field and the normal to the loop is 40°, leading to the conclusion that the magnetic flux can be computed directly using these established values.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of magnetic fields in solenoids
  • Familiarity with the formula for magnetic flux
  • Knowledge of vector calculus for surface integrals
  • Basic geometry for calculating area of a circle
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the magnetic field in solenoids using Ampère's Law
  • Learn about magnetic flux integrals in varying magnetic fields
  • Explore the implications of angle θ in magnetic flux calculations
  • Investigate applications of magnetic flux in electromagnetic theory
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Students studying electromagnetism, physics educators, and anyone interested in solving problems related to magnetic fields and flux in solenoids.

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Homework Statement


A wire circle of radius 0.050 m is embedded in a solenoid of length 0.20 m with 1000 turns that carries a current of 0.50 A. If a vector that is normal to the plane of the circle makes a 40° angle with the axis of the solenoid, what is the magnetic flux through the loop?



Homework Equations


B (solenoid) = μ*I*n
Flux = B*A*cosθ



The Attempt at a Solution


n=1000/.2
I'm using the loops per unit length
l=.20m
r=0.05m
I=0.5A
I plugged in the values to solve for the magnetic field:
B=(4*∏*10^-7)*(0.5A)*(1000/.2)
B=0.031T

A=(∏r^2)*(l)
A=1.5e-4 m^3

I'm having some trouble visualizing the angle, but I think the angle should be 50?

Can someone point me in the right direction?
 
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Plugged in? You have to do a flux integral.
the flux If the solenoid points alon an axis, z, the angle between the magnetic field and the circle is still 40deg. So
\Phi = \int \vec{B}_{solenoid}\cdot d\vec{a} = \int |B_{solenoid}|\cos(\theta) da =|B_{solenoid}|\int \cos(\theta)da
B goes out in front because it is constant over the circle. So do the surface integral yourself.
I would always suggest to do the solution algebraically first, then insert numbers, and then evaluate your result. Is it realistic and does it diverge at any point.
And always draw your situation, saves a lot of trouble.
 
Thanks - I'm sure you are correct, but we will not get to integrals until a later section. I would like to get the answer using the tools from this section which are the formulas I listed above.
Thanks again - I should have been more specific with my question.
 

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