What is the Weyl symbol and its relation to the propagator in QFT?

maverick280857
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Hi everyone,

In chapter 5 of Lewis Ryder's book on QFT, the expression for the propagator as a path integral is derived. Equation 5.7, which is the expression for the propagator over a small path (q_{j+1} t_{j+1};q_{j}t_{j}), reads

\langle q_{j+1} t_{j+1} |q_{j}t_{j}\rangle = \frac{1}{2\pi\hbar}\int dp \exp{\left[\frac{i}{\hbar}p(q_{j+1}-q_j)\right]} - \frac{i\tau}{\hbar}\langle q_{j+1}|H|q_{j}\rangle

where \tau = t_{j+1}-t_{j}. This expression holds quite generally, but equation 5.13, which reads

\langle q_{f} t_{f} |q_{i}t_{i}\rangle = \int \frac{\mathcal{D}q\mathcal{D}p}{h}\exp{\frac{i}{\hbar}\left[\int dt p\dot{q}-H(p,q)\right]}

is derived under the assumption that H is of the form

H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + V(q)

This allows us to express the propagator as a function of the action S[q(t)] in the above expression.

But what if H is not of this form? What does the propagator look like there? I suppose it depends on the specific case (the author points out one example of a Lagrangian L = f(q)\dot{q}^2/2 which requires the introduction of an effective action different from \int L dt), but are there any general rules or classes of systems where one can write the above expression, but which do not have the canonical form of H given above?

The author also states that Feynman began with the above expression for the propagator, which is not a very rigorous thing to do, given the counterexample in the previous paragraph.

Thanks.
 
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I got a partial answer on page 281 of Peskin and Schroeder.
 
In general the formula is correct if the classical H(p,q) is the Weyl symbol of the quantum hamiltonian, defined as

H(p,q)\equiv\int ds\,e^{ips/\hbar}\langle q{-}{\textstyle{1\over2}}s|\hat H|q{+}{\textstyle{1\over2}}s\rangle.
 
I think Avodyne is correct, as p^2/(2m)+V(q) is not the most general Hamiltonian you can have. You should be able to have H(p,q)=ap^2+bp+pf(q)+V(q) for constants a, b and arbitrary function f(q). This ought to be the most general Hamiltonian that allows one to safely pass into the Lagrangian scheme. The only example of such a cross term pf(q) I can think of are in 3-gluon vertices in non-Abelian gauge theories (or just boson 3-vertices in general).
 
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Thanks RedX and Avodyne.

Avodyne said:
In general the formula is correct if the classical H(p,q) is the Weyl symbol of the quantum hamiltonian, defined as

H(p,q)\equiv\int ds\,e^{ips/\hbar}\langle q{-}{\textstyle{1\over2}}s|\hat H|q{+}{\textstyle{1\over2}}s\rangle.

Where can I read more about this Weyl symbol, and specially this integral representation?
 
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