Where Does \(\frac{1}{2}x\) Come From at \(k=1\)?

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The discussion centers on the derivation of \(\frac{1}{2}x\) when \(k=1\), highlighting that this results from the expression yielding a \(0/0\) form. Participants reference L'Hôpital's Rule to resolve the limit, leading to the conclusion that the limit approaches 1. The conversation emphasizes the importance of recognizing indeterminate forms in calculus. Clarifications are made regarding the calculations involved in reaching the final expression. Overall, the thread effectively addresses the mathematical reasoning behind the appearance of \(\frac{1}{2}x\) at \(k=1\).
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Homework Statement



half_wave.jpg


How did \frac{1}{2}x come from at k=1?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



because k=1 will make the first term at denominator 2(k-1) = \frac{0}{0}
 
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izen said:

Homework Statement



half_wave.jpg


How did \frac{1}{2}x come from at k=1?

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



because k=1 will make the first term at denominator 2(k-1) = \frac{0}{0}
Yes. The \ \frac{1}{2}x\ comes from the fact that the first term has the form 0/0 as k → 1.

What is \displaystyle \ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\ ?
 
SammyS said:
Yes. The \ \frac{1}{2}x\ comes from the fact that the first term has the form 0/0 as k → 1.

What is \displaystyle \ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\ ?

Use L' Hopital's Rule --> \displaystyle \ \lim_{t\to0}cos(t) = 1

thank you SammyS
 
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