- #1
giladsof
- 13
- 0
Which Way Is V? Understanding the Relationship Between Electricity and Magnetism
- Thread starter giladsof
- Start date
- #2
ideasrule
Homework Helper
- 2,286
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You're trying to calculate the current induced by the movement of the rod. That current is 0 when the rod is at equilibrium, because the rod wouldn't be moving. Even when it's not at equilibrium, the induced current is usually so small as to be negligible compared to the current supplied by the power source.
So you just need to consider the force applied by the magnetic field on the rod, due to the existing current I. There's no need to consider induction.
So you just need to consider the force applied by the magnetic field on the rod, due to the existing current I. There's no need to consider induction.
- #3
giladsof
- 13
- 0
OK... As I try your idea I get into the following dilemma: which way is V? The movement of the rod or the movement of the current?
Unfortunately neither one of those options creates a force upwards using the right hand rule... \:
Unfortunately neither one of those options creates a force upwards using the right hand rule... \:
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure.
After the equation (4.50) it says
"It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)"
I still don't understand the figure :(
Here is...
Boundary conditions:
The derived Dirichlet and Neumann boundary conditions
In terms of the magnetic scalar potential:
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself.
Part (a) is quite easy. We get
$$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 =
\begin{pmatrix}
0 \\
0 \\
1
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
-1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
$$
There are two ways...
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