Why are we allowed to do this? v. limits

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lim(e^(lnx)) as x---> inf. = e^(lim(lnx) as x--->inf.)

the book just says "by continuity of e^x"

why are we allowed to do this?
 
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You can prove it using the definition of a limit. The continuity of e^x turns out to be important in the proof.
 
this isn't an actual homework problem; I ran into this while reading the book... it doesn't elaborate any further
 
Refer back to your limit laws; you learned limits of sums, limits of products, et cetera. One of them was limits of compositions.
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
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