> Why Change Of Magnetic Flux Induces Current In It?

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Changing magnetic flux through a coil induces current due to the principles outlined in Maxwell's equations, which link electric and magnetic fields. A constant magnetic flux does not induce current because there is no change over time, which is necessary for electromagnetic induction. The discussion highlights the fundamental nature of these laws in classical electrodynamics, suggesting that advanced theories like special relativity may provide deeper insights. For beginners, understanding these concepts can be challenging, but resources like Schwartz's "Principles of Electrodynamics" are recommended for further study. Overall, the relationship between changing magnetic fields and induced currents is a foundational aspect of electromagnetism.
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Why change of magnetic flux with the time through a coil induces current in it?
Please tell me that what happen to charge in the coil if the magnet or electromagnet wave around this? Also, why a constant magnetic flux does not induces current?
 
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This is a pretty involved question that doesn't have a simple answer. What do you know about it currently? What's your level of education in the subject?
 
Drakkith said:
This is a pretty involved question that doesn't have a simple answer. What do you know about it currently? What's your level of education in the subject?

I am the beginner in magnetism but intermediate in electricity.
 
As far as classical electrodynamics goes ( I don't know if more advanced theories of physics shed more light on this question ) this is one of maxwell's four fundamental postulates ( or equations ) of electrodynamics. So within the framework of the classical theory, this is simply how it works. It's a fundamental law and is just so. Electric and magnetic fields are just linked in this fundamental way. Incidentally, a time varying electric flux through a coil will also induce a circumferential magnetic field and this law displays a compelling symmetry with the other one.
It's kind of like asking why there exists a force of attraction between two opposite charges. You took that for granted didn't you ?
 
It's a consequence of special relativity (SR) so, contrary to siddharth5129's statements, classical physics can perfectly well explain its origin. However if you don't know SR then I'm not sure how effectively one could explain it to you. In any event I would recommend taking a look at chapter 3 of Schwartz "Principles of Electrodynamics".
 
oh. I'm sorry. My bad then.
 
It may be shown from the equations of electromagnetism, by James Clerk Maxwell in the 1860’s, that the speed of light in the vacuum of free space is related to electric permittivity (ϵ) and magnetic permeability (μ) by the equation: c=1/√( μ ϵ ) . This value is a constant for the vacuum of free space and is independent of the motion of the observer. It was this fact, in part, that led Albert Einstein to Special Relativity.
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